30 September 2022: Daily Current Affairs & GK for HAS/HPAS & Allied Services
Ques:1 . Consider the following statements, with reference to Global Innovation Index1. It is published by United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
2. There is continuous improvement of India’s rank during last seven years in this index.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (B)
Answer: (B)
- Statement 1 is not correct: Global Innovation Index is published by WIPO, Recently India reached to 40th rank in this index.
- Statement 2 is correct: As it can be observed from above chart that, there is continuous improvement of India’s rank during last seven years in this index.
..........................................................................................................
2. Consider the following statements, with respect to Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1. It allows abortion up to 20 weeks and also upto 24 weeks in exceptional situation.
2. Both married and unmarried women are allowed for termination of pregnancy under the act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (C)
Answer: (C)
- Statement 1 is correct: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act allows termination of pregnancy by a medical practitioner in two stages.
- After a crucial amendment in 2021, for pregnancies up to 20 weeks, termination is allowed under the opinion of one registered medical practitioner.
- For pregnancies between 20-24 weeks, the Rules requires the opinion of two registered medical practitioners in certain exceptional cases such as Survivors of sexual assault or rape or incest; minors; change of marital status during the ongoing pregnancy (widowhood and divorce) etc.
- Statement 2 is correct: Recently, Supre court judgment upheld that the MTP Act, Rule 3B(c) cannot be read in isolation but has to be read together with other sub-clauses under 3B. When other sub-clauses do not distinguish between married or unmarried women.
- Therefore, allows married and unmarried women for termination of pregnancy on certain exceptional grounds when the foetus is between 20-24 weeks.
- Source : https://indianexpress.com/article/india/sc-moves-the-needle-on-marital-rape-debate-for-mtp-purposes-it-is-rape-8181449/
..........................................................................................................
Ques:3. Consider the following statements: 1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (C) - Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the debt manager for both the Central Government and the State Governments.
Answer: (C) - Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the debt manager for both the Central Government and the State Governments.
- Statement 1 is not correct: RBI manages the debt of state governments on the basis of separate agreements.
- Statement 2 is correct: Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 days, 182 days and 364 days. The State governments do not issue any treasury bills.
- Statement 3 is correct: Interest on the treasury bills is determined by market forces. They are auctioned by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at regular intervals and issued at a discount to face value.
- Source : https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1863430
..........................................................................................................
Ques:4. Consider the following statements, with respect to Electoral Bearer Bond Scheme1. Electoral Bonds may be purchased by any person who is living in India
2. All registered political parties are eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
2. All registered political parties are eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: (D)
Answer: (D)
- Statement 1 is not correct: As per provisions of the to Electoral Bearer Bond Scheme, Electoral Bonds may be purchased by a person (as defined in item No. 2 (d) of Gazette Notification), who is a citizen of India or incorporated or established in India.
- Statement 2 is not correct: Only the Political Parties registered under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last General Election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly of the State, shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
- Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1863313
..........................................................................................................
Ques:5. With reference to Chief of Defence Staff (CDS), consider the following statements
1. The first proposal for a CDS came from the 2000 Kargil Review Committee (KRC). 2. He function as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.
3. He function as the Military Advisor to the Nuclear Command Authority.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: (D) Chief of Defence Staff(CDS), is single-point military adviser to the government as suggested by the Kargil Review Committee in 1999. CDS oversees and coordinates the working of the three Services. He will be a Four-star General.
Answer: (D) Chief of Defence Staff(CDS), is single-point military adviser to the government as suggested by the Kargil Review Committee in 1999. CDS oversees and coordinates the working of the three Services. He will be a Four-star General.
Duties and functions of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) include the following:
- To head the Department of Military Affairs in Ministry of Defence and function as its Secretary.
- To act as the Principal Military Advisor to Hon’ble Raksha Mantri on all Tri-Service matters.
- To function as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee
- To administer the Tri-Service organizations/agencies/commands.
- To be a member of Defence Acquisition Council chaired by Hon’ble Raksha Mantri.
- To function as the Military Advisor to the Nuclear Command Authority.
- To bring about jointness in operation, logistics, transport, training, support services, communications, repairs and maintenance, etc of the three Services.
- To ensure optimal utilisation of infrastructure and rationalise it through jointness among the Services.
- Source: https://pib.gov.in/FactsheetDetails.aspx?Id=148566
- https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/new-cds-must-build-a-bridge-between-a-government-in-a-hurry-and-an-organisation-resistant-to-change-8181339/
