29 September 2022: Daily Current Affairs & GK for HAS/HPAS & Allied Services

29 September 2022: Daily Current Affairs & GK for HAS/HPAS & Allied Services

29 September 2022: Daily Current Affairs & GK for HAS/HPAS & Allied Services

Ques:1. Consider the following statements, with respect to the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA) Tribunal:
  1. It consists of only one person, who has to be a High Court judge.
  2. To make inquiries, it has the same powers as vested in a civil court

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only 
b) 2 only 
c) Both 1 and 2 
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer

Solution : (C)

UAPA provides for a tribunal under a High Court judge to be constituted by the government for its bans to have long-term legal sanctity.

  • The Centre issues orders to declare an organization as “unlawful” under Section 3 of the UAPA.
  • The provision says that “no such notification shall have effect until the tribunal has, by an order made under Section 4, confirmed the declaration made therein and the order is published in the Official Gazette”.

Statement 1 is correct: The tribunal comprises only one person who has to be a High Court judge. If a vacancy (other than a temporary absence) occurs in the Tribunal, the Centre appoints another judge and the proceedings continue from the stage at which the vacancy is filled.

Statement 2 is correct: To make inquiries, the tribunal has the same powers as vested in a civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. These can be exercised in summoning a witness and examining him on oath; production of any document or other material object producible as evidence.

Source : https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/appealing-the-pfi-ban-how-uapa-tribunal-works-8179064/


Ques:2. With reference to Chief of Defence Staff(CDS), consider the following statements

1. The first proposal for a CDS came from the 2000 Kargil Review Committee (KRC).

2. He function as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee.

3. He function as the Military Advisor to the Nuclear Command Authority.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only 
b) 1 and 2 only 
c) 2 and 3 only 
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer

Solution : (D)

Chief of Defence Staff(CDS),  is single-point military adviser to the government as suggested by the Kargil Review Committee in 1999. CDS oversees and coordinates the working of the three Services. He will be a Four-star General.

Duties and functions of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) include the following:

  1. To head the Department of Military Affairs in Ministry of Defence and function as its Secretary.
  2. To act as the Principal Military Advisor to Hon’ble Raksha Mantri on all Tri-Service matters.
  3. To function as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee
  4. To administer the Tri-Service organizations/agencies/commands.
  5. To be a member of Defence Acquisition Council chaired by Hon’ble Raksha Mantri.
  6. To function as the Military Advisor to the Nuclear Command Authority.
  7. To bring about jointness in operation, logistics, transport, training, support services, communications, repairs and maintenance, etc of the three Services.
  8. To ensure optimal utilisation of infrastructure and rationalise it through jointness among the Services.

Source : https://indianexpress.com/article/india/government-appoints-lt-general-anil-chauhan-retired-as-chief-of-defence-staff-8178843/


Ques:3. Recently, Central government banned Popular Front of India (PFI) under which Act
a) Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 
b) Prevention of Terrorism Act,2002 
c) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 
d) Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), 1967

Correct Answer

Solution : (D)

The Centre has declared the Popular Front of India (PFI) an “unlawful association” under the Unlawful Activities Prevention Act (UAPA), 1967.

Central law enforcement agencies and state police across the country now have the right to arrest members of the organisation, freeze its accounts, and even confiscate its assets. Some significant consequences, based on the provisions of the law.

Source : https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/pfi-ban-uapa-law-arrest-freeze-accounts-explained-8177430/


Ques:4. Currently, which of the following nations are part of G20 ‘Troika’

1. India,

2. Indonesia

3. South Africa

Select the correct answer using the code given below

a) 1 only 
b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 2 only 
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer

Solution : (C)  

It refers to the top grouping within the G20 that consists of the current, previous and the incoming presidencies.

India is currently part of the G20 Troika (current, previous and incoming G20 Presidencies) comprising Indonesia, Italy and India.

Source : https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/columns/g-20-presidency-is-an-opportunity-to-position-india-as-the-voice-of-the-global-south-8179114/


Ques:5. It is form of deficit which refers to as the difference between the total revenue earned and total expenditures incurred by a country in a fiscal year.

Which type of deficit is mentioned in above statement ?

a) Current account deficit 
b) Principal deficit 
c) Revenue deficit 
d) Fiscal deficit

Correct Answer

Solution : (D)

What is Fiscal deficit: Fiscal deficit is referred to as the difference between the total revenue earned and total expenditures incurred by a country in a fiscal year.

Current Account Deficit (CAD): The current account deficit is a measurement of a country’s trade where the value of the goods and services it imports exceeds the value of the products it exports

Source : https://indianexpress.com/article/business/economy/strained-fiscal-math-limits-foodgrain-scheme-extension-to-only-3-months-8179335/


Ques:6. Consider the following statements regarding floods in India:
  1. As per a 1980 report of Rashtriya Barh Ayog (National Commission on Floods), the total flood-prone area of India is around 12% of the total land.

  2. The major flood area in India is the Indo-Gangetic plains which accounts for nearly 60% of the total river flow of the country.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?


Correct Answer

Solution : C

12% of Indian land is flood-prone. State-wise study shows that about 27% of the flood damage in the country is in Bihar, 33% in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand, and 15% by Punjab and Haryana.

The major flood areas in India are in the Ganges – Brahmaputra – Meghna Basin which accounts for nearly 60% of the total river flow of the country.

Distribution of flood plains in India–

  1. Brahmaputra River Region
  2. Ganga River Region
  3. North – West River Region
  4. Central and Deccan India

The middle and lower courses of North Indian rivers such as Ganga, Brahmaputra, Kosi, Damodar, Mahanadi, etc are prone to floods due to very low gradient. Peninsular rivers are mature and have hard rock beds, so they have shallow basins. This makes them prone to flooding. Parts of the Eastern coasts of India are particularly prone to cyclones during October – November. These cyclones are accompanied by strong winds, storm surges, tidal waves, and torrential rains.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/in-natures-warning-signs-a-nudge-to-riparian-states/article65946194.ece


Ques:7. Consider the following statements regarding recent developments in Bay of Bengal (BoB):
  1. A Centre for Bay of Bengal Studies (CBS) was recently opened at Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU).
  2. CBS will offer collaborations in areas such as geo-economics and geopolitics, ecology, trade and connectivity, maritime security, maritime law, cultural heritage, and blue economy to generate opportunities for the Bay region.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 only 
b) 2 only 
c) Both 1 and 2 
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer

Solution : B

  • At the fourth BIMSTEC summit, Prime Minister Narendra Modi announced the opening of the Centre for Bay of Bengal Studies (CBS) at Nalanda University.
  • CBS will offer collaborations in areas such as geo-economics and geopolitics, ecology, trade and connectivity, maritime security, maritime law, cultural heritage, and blue economy to generate opportunities for the Bay region. This will strengthen India’s overall framework for maritime engagement, which aims to advance sustainable economic growth for all by fostering closer nautical ties.
  • Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/rediscovering-the-bay-of-bengal/article65946257.ece


Ques:8. Consider the following statements regarding Information Fusion Centre for the Indian Ocean Region (IFC- IOR):
  1. IFC has been established within Ministry of External Affairs in South Block, Delhi.
  2. All countries that have signed white shipping information exchange agreements with India can posit liaison officers (LOs) at the IFC.
  3. IFC-IOR will help in maritime domain awareness in real time, and tackling threats like maritime terrorism, piracy, arms-running, human trafficking etc.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 only 
b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only 
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer

Solution : B

  • Information Fusion Centre for the Indian Ocean Region (IFC- IOR) has been established at the Indian Navy’s Information Management and Analysis Centre (IMAC) in Gurugram, Haryana.
  • IFC is the single point center linking all the coastal radar chains to generate a seamless real-time picture of the nearly 7,500-km coastline.
  • All countries that have signed white shipping information exchange agreements with India can now position liaison officers at the IFC. Countries like USA, UK have posted their officers in IFC-IOR.

Objectives of IFC- IOR:

  1. Sharing of White Shipping Information (movement of cargo ships) among countries
  2. Maritime domain awareness in real time
  3. Tackling threats from non-state actors like maritime terrorism, piracy, arms-running, human trafficking etc

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/rediscovering-the-bay-of-bengal/article65946257.ece


Ques:9. With respect to the recently recovered archeological remains in Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh, which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
a) Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) in 2022 discovered Buddhist caves and stupas dating back to the 2nd century at Bandhavgarh. 
b) Some inscriptions in Sanskrit from 2nd to 5th century were also discovered. 
c) The inscriptions mention sites such as Mathura and Kaushambi, and kings like Bhimsena and Bhattadeva. 
d) The remains of the caves have rounded doors and stone beds typical of Mahayana Buddhism sites.

Correct Answer

Solution : B

  • Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) earlier this year discovered Buddhist caves and stupas, and Brahmi inscriptions, dating back to the 2nd century, and Hindu temples from the 9th-11th centuries, and possibly the world’s largest Varaha sculpture also dating to the same period, at the Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
  • The Varaha sculpture is among the many monolithic sculptures of the 10 incarnations of Lord Vishnu that were discovered by an ASI at the national park earlier this year.
  • The caves and some of their remains had ‘Chaitya’ (rounded) doors and stone beds typical of Mahayana Buddhism sites. This discovery brings the total number of caves found in Bandhavgarh to 76, as 50 are already in the records since the last survey.
  • 24 inscriptions in Brahmi text were also found, all dating back to the 2nd-5th centuries. The inscriptions mention sites such as Mathura and Kaushambi, and Pavata, Vejabharada and Sapatanaairikaa. The kings they mention include Bhimsena, Pothasiri and Bhattadeva.
  • The remains of 26 temples date to the Kalachuri period between 9th-11th centuries. In addition to this, two Saiva mutts have also been documented. The Kalachuri dynasty, which spread over parts of Gujarat, Maharashtra and MP, is also associated with the earliest Ellora and Elephanta cave monuments.
  • Some remains of the Gupta period, such as door jambs and carvings in caves, have also been found.
  • Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/asi-finds-temples-buddhist-caves-in-bandhavgarh-tiger-reserve/article65947562.ece


Ques:10. Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY):
  1. It is a free food grain distribution scheme of Department of Food and Public Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs.
  2. The scheme aims to feed the poorest citizens of India by providing grain through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
  3. Eligible beneficiaries of the scheme include all the priority households, that is, ration card holders and those identified by the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) scheme.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

a) 1 only 
b) 2 and 3 only 
c) 1 and 3 only 
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer

Solution : D

  • The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) was started in April 2020as part of Atma Nirbhaya Bharat (ANB) abhiyaan  to help the poor whose livelihoods were shuttered by a nationwide lockdown aimed at containing the spread of the coronavirus, including migrant workers.
  • The government in September 2022 extended by three months its programme to provide free rations to the poor till December 31, 2022.
  • The scheme provides each person who is covered under the NFSA (National Food Security Act 2013) with an additional and 1 kg of dal and 5 kg grains (wheat or rice) per month for free, in addition to the 5 kg of subsidized food grain already provided through the Public Distribution System (PDS).
  • The program is operated by the Department of Food and Public Distribution under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution.
  • The scheme aims to feed the poorest citizens of India (around 80 crore) by providing grain through the Public Distribution System, to all the priority households (ration card holders and those identified by the Antyodaya Anna Yojana scheme).
  • Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/centre-extends-free-ration-scheme-by-three-months/article65945734.ece


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