03 August 2022: Daily Current Affairs & GK for HAS/HPAS & Allied Services

03 August 2022: Daily Current Affairs & GK for HAS/HPAS & Allied Services


03 August 2022: Daily Current Affairs & GK for HAS/HPAS & Allied Services

1. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the Indian National Flag?

a) Its architects are Nandalal Bose and Prem Behari Raizada.

b) The original tricolour was adopted by the All India Congress Committee of 1923.

c) Constituent assembly adopted the modern day tricolour as National Flag on 22nd July 1947.

d) Display and usage of the flag is governed by the Flag Code of India, 2002, Emblems and Names (Prevention of Improper Use) Act, 1950 and the Prevention of Insults to National Honor Act, 1971.

Answer: A

Explanation: Pingali Venkayya is the architect of the Indian National Flag. Rest statements are correct.

 

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the schedules of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 of India?

1. The 1st schedule gives the highest level of protection to endangered animals while the 2nd schedule is for species that are not endangered and thus need lesser degree of protection.

2. Third schedule includes animals which are ‘vermins’.

3. Sixth schedule includes plants which are forbidden from cultivation.

Select the correct option answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Animals listed in schedule 1 and parts II of schedule 2 have absolute protection - offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties. Animals listed in schedule 3 and schedules 4 are also protected, but the penalties are lower compared to schedule 1 and part 2 of schedule 2.
  • Animals listed in schedule 5 are called “vermin” which can be hunted.Cultivation, Collection, extraction, trade, etc. of Plants and its derivatives listed in schedule 6 are prohibited.
  • The recently introduced WPA Amendment Bill, 2021 has proposed restructuring the schedules of the act and reduces it to 4.

 

3. Which of the following Indian research stations is located in the Arctic?

a) Bharati

b) Maitri

c) Himadri

d) Dakshin Gangotri

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Indian polar research stations:
  • In the arctic: Himadri
  • In the Antarctic: Maitri and Bharati. Dakshin Gangotri was our first research station in the Antarctic but now it’s reduced to a supply base.
  • Indian Antarctic Bill, 2022 was recently passed by the Parliament.

 

4. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding cryptocurrency?

1.It refers to a type of centralised digital currency.

2. It is unregulated by any government or monetary regulator of the world.

3. The Official Digital Currency Bill, 2021 proposed by Indian government will be an unregulated decentralised virtual currency in line of cryptocurrencies like bitcoin.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Cryptocurrency is a digital or virtual form of currency that uses cryptography to secure transactions.
  • Cryptocurrencies don't have a central issuing or regulating authority, instead use a decentralized system to record transactions and issue new coins.
  • It is supported by blockchain technology that leverages decentralized peer-to-peer network of nodes or computers to anonymise transactions.
  • Cryptocurrency and Regulation of Official Digital Currency Bill, 2021 of India proposes to ban the use of all private cryptocurrency while issuing an official cryptocurrency to be regulated by RBI.

 

5. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding trade deficit?

1. It occurs when the cost of a country's imports exceeds the cost of its exports.

2. India’s trade deficit is continuously widening since the last 3 years.

3. A small trade deficit is necessary for economic growth as it increases demand and consumption.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • A Trade deficit occurs when the cost of a country's imports exceeds the cost of its exports. It's also known as a negative balance of trade.
  • Trade deficit of a country= total value of imports- total value of exports.
  • A small trade deficit is necessary for economic growth as it increases demand and consumption but a wide trade deficit can cause high inflation and depreciate value of domestic currency.


6. Consider the following statements:

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of         the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.

2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved\                 misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.

3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in     the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to         be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that      House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2

b) 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: C

Explanation: Removal process of SC judges?

  • Statement 2 is not correct. The grounds of removal of SC judges is mentioned in constitution are proved misbehaviour or incapacity. However, Constitution of India doesn’t define and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  • The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment: ( Statement 3 is correct)

  1. A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/Chairman.
  2. The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.( Statement 2 is not correct)
  3. If it is admitted, then the Speaker/Chairman is to constitute a three-member committee to investigate into the charges.
  4. The committee should consist of
    1. the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court,
    2. a chief justice of a high court, and
    3. a distinguished jurist.
  5. If the committee finds the judge to be guilty of misbehavior or   suffering from an incapacity, the House can take up the consideration of the motion.
  6. After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament by special   majority, an address is presented to the president for removal of the judge.
  7. Finally, the president passes an order removing the judge.

 

7. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.

2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.

3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: D

Explanation: 

  • Statement 1 is correct: As per the Article 124 of Indian constitution, “Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Courts in the States as the President may deem Provided that in the case of appointment of a Judge other than the chief Justice, the chief Justice of India shall always be consulted”
  • Statement 2 is not correct:  Supreme Court Judges are removed by removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament (by a special majority of each House of Parliament (majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting)
  • Statement 3 is correct: The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.

 

8. Consider the following sections of the Right to Information Act(RTI),

1. Section 8 (1): Exemptions against furnishing information under certain grounds.

2. Section 4: Suo motu disclosure of information by each public authority.

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both

d) None of the above

Answer: C

Explanation:

  • Pair 1 is matched correctly. Section 8 (1) of the act mentions , the exemptions against furnishing information under RTI Act on certain grounds that such information prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security, strategic, scientific or economic interests of the State, relation with foreign State or lead to incitement of an offence;
  • Section ( 4) of RTI act mentions that: Pair 2 is matched correctly. “It shall be a constant endeavour of every public authority to take steps in accordance with the requirements of clause (b) of subsection (1) to provide as much information suo motu to the public at regular intervals through various means of communications, including internet, so that the public have minimum resort to the use of this Act to obtain information.”

 

9.  99th Constitutional amendment is related to

a) National Judicial Appointments Commission ( NJAC)

b) Exchange of certain enclave territories with Bangladesh

c) Goods and Services Tax (GST )

d) None of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • 99th Constitutional Amendment Act 2014, enacted by the parliament to replace the collegium system of appointing judges to the Supreme Court and High Courts with a new body called the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).
  • While 100th CAA talks about Exchange of certain enclave territories with Bangladesh and conferment of citizenship rights to residents of enclaves consequent to signing of Land Boundary Agreement (LBA) Treaty between India and Bangladesh.
  • And 101 CAA is related to GST

 

10. Consider the following statements, with respect to suspension of Member of Parliament (MPs):

1. Presiding officer of the house has authority to suspend the MPs of the house.

2. An MP can’t be suspended beyond the session of the house.

3. Indian Constitution mentions the grounds under which an MP can be suspended for violating the rules of the house.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 3 is not correct: Indian constitution doesn’t mention the grounds for the suspension of MPs of the house. Rather it is mentioned in the rule of the concern house.
  • Statement 1 is correct: As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of the house, the presiding officer of the house has authority to suspend the MPs of the house.
  • Statement 2 is correct: As per the recent judgment of Supreme court, the suspension of member of house can’t be held beyond the Session of the house.

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